Cisco 700-105 Exam Prep Course (Premium File)
AI-Powered Cisco Midsize Collaboration Solutions for Account Managers (MCAM) Exam - Pass on Your First Try

Question 589:

• Correct answer: D
• Why: For a unit handling intellectual property and patents, the ability for employees to share files with external users creates the highest risk of unauthorized disclosure or IP leakage. External sharing directly threatens confidentiality of sensitive IP.

• Other options (less critical in this context):

• Suggested actions for the auditor:

Question 571:

• Correct answer: D) Loss of application support

• Why: Patches that are not tested before production violate change management and patch management policies. Many vendors require patches to be tested in a controlled environment and approved before deployment; if patches are deployed untested, the organization may no longer receive vendor support for issues related to those patches, increasing risk and response time during incidents.

• Why the other options are less significant:

• Quick mitigation: enforce strict change control, require testing in a staging environment, implement rollback procedures, and ensure alignment with vendor support terms for patched components.

Question 566:

• Correct answer: B — balanced scorecard.

• Why: The metrics cover multiple perspectives used in a balanced scorecard approach:

• Why other options aren’t best:

• Key concept: A balanced scorecard translates strategy into a mix of financial and non-financial measures to monitor performance and align actions with goals.

Question 567:

• Correct answer: D — developed by process owners.

• based on industry standards: Helpful for best practices but not sufficient alone; standards may not fit the organization's specifics.
• well understood by all employees: Important for compliance, but only after proper ownership and governance mechanisms are in place.
• updated frequently: Currency is important, but without owners responsible for updates, this often fails.

Question 532:

• Correct answer: C. Regular backups are made and stored offsite

• Why this is the most important: The primary goal of a disaster recovery plan is to enable data and operations recovery after a disaster. If backups are not made regularly or are not stored offsite, a disaster could corrupt or destroy both the original data and any local backups, leaving the organization unable to restore critical systems. Offsite storage protects against site-specific risks (fire, flood, theft, etc.) and ensures data can be restored.

• Why the other options are less critical for recovery capability:

• Audit steps you’d perform: verify backup schedules and frequency, confirm offsite storage and protection, review backup restoration testing and success rates, and ensure retention periods align with business needs.

Question 518:
Answer: B
Why: Data analytics in testing uses actual data to verify controls. By reviewing new account applications from the past month for invalid dates of birth, you analyze real patterns and exceptions, confirming whether the DOB validation is effective and where gaps may exist. This approach leverages data to facilitate testing.
Why the other options are less appropriate:

• A: Reviewing the business requirements for the DOB field helps design tests but doesn’t use data analytics to test the process.
• C: Attempting to submit invalid DOBs is manual testing and doesn’t involve analyzing data to guide testing.
• D: Evaluating configuration settings focuses on setup, not on data-driven testing results.

• Pull the last month of new account applications.
• Identify records with invalid DOBs per the rules.
• Analyze frequency, root causes, and impact to refine test cases and validation rules.

Question 513:

• Correct answer: B — Mirrored sites

• Redundant arrays: protects against disk failures but not site-wide outages or rapid failover between sites.
• Nightly backups: results in high RPO (up to 24 hours) and longer RTO.
• Remote backups: protects against site loss but may involve network latency and not real-time failover; still higher RPO/RTO than true mirroring.

Question 467:

• The correct answer is C: It acts as a measuring tool and progress indicator.

• A maturity model provides defined levels to quantify current capability, baseline gaps, and track improvements over time.
• This measurement and progressReporting support management decisions and visibility into how the organization is advancing.

• A: Identifying weaknesses is part of the assessment, but the primary value is the measurement framework, not just fixing gaps.
• B: Facilitating an improvement plan can result from the assessment, but it’s a consequence, not the core benefit.
• D: Ensuring organizational consistency and improvement is a broader outcome; the core, defining benefit is the measurement of maturity and progress.

Question 466:

• The correct answer is C: System downtime reports.

• SLAs specify required availability. Downtime reports provide actual outages, durations, and times, which let you verify if uptime targets were met and identify any breaches.
• These reports enable calculation of SLA metrics (e.g., uptime percentage, MTTR) and help correlate outages with maintenance windows or incidents.

• System utilization reports show usage patterns, not whether service levels were met.
• Capacity planning tools help foresee demand but don’t confirm actual SLA performance.
• IS strategic plan is high-level and not evidence of current SLA compliance.

Question 452:
Question 452 asks which firewall type provides the GREATEST degree of control against hacker intrusion.

• Packet filtering router: operates at the network layer; filters by IP/port/protocol. Fast but offers limited inspection and control.
• Circuit gateway: acts as a proxy at the session layer; controls connections but not detailed content.
• Application level gateway: proxies at the application layer; can inspect payload, enforce application-specific policies, authenticate users, and provide detailed logging.
• Screening router: generic filtering with less granular control.