EMC E20-598 Exam Prep Course (Premium File)
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Question 0:
You’re right to question it, but in this exam context the correct option is A: create_resource("res1", "ComputerVision", "F0", "westus").
Why:

• The task is to generate captions of images, which uses the Computer Vision resource, not Custom Vision.
• The requirement specifies a free Azure resource, so you should use the free tier F0 in the West US region.
• The other options either use the wrong service (CustomVision.Prediction) or a paid tier (S0).

Question 17:

• Correct answer: A

• Why: To generate captions of images, you need a ComputerVision resource, not CustomVision.Prediction. The task specifies a free Azure resource, so use the free tier F0 and set the location to westus. The other options either use the wrong service (Custom Vision) or use a paid tier (S0). The function call should be:

Question 46:

• The correct completion is: collection of information concepts and their relationships to one another.

• In TOGAF/Enterprise Architecture, an information map is a visual representation of the information landscape. It shows what information assets exist, where they reside, and how they relate and flow between systems. It helps identify key data concepts, their locations, and the dependencies between them.

Question 1810:

• Correct answer: C — User acceptance testing (UAT)

• Why: In year two, business processes are updated to implement new functionality. UAT verifies that the new functionality meets business requirements, is usable by end users, and supports necessary controls and reporting. It provides the final confirmation before go-live.

• Why the others are weaker:

• Practical tip: base UAT on real business scenarios, ensure the UAT environment mirrors production, require business owner sign-off, and maintain traceability between requirements and test cases.

Question 1807:

• Correct answer: D — Previous system interface testing records

• Why: since the two business-critical systems haven’t been tested since implementation, the most relevant evidence for planning an audit is what was previously tested on the interfaces between those systems. These records show the actual interface test scope, data mappings, validation rules, error handling, and reconciliation checks, and help identify gaps to address during the audit.

• Why others are weaker:

• Practical tip: use the records to define test objectives, identify missing interface controls, and plan targeted re-testing or validation of data integrity across the interfaces.

Question 1813:
Correct answer: C

• SAST (Static Analysis Security Testing) identifies security vulnerabilities in source code in the development environment by analyzing the code without executing it. It’s typically integrated into the SDLC (e.g., during coding or CI/CD) to catch issues early.

• DAST (Dynamic Analysis Security Testing) tests a running application from an external perspective to find runtime vulnerabilities, not the source code.
• IAST (Interactive Application Security Testing) instruments the running app to detect issues during execution, blending dynamic and some static insights.
• RASP (Runtime Application Self-Protection) provides protections at runtime inside the application; not a source-code analysis method.

Question 1811:
Correct answer: D
Reason:

• If encryption keys are not centrally managed, the DLP tool cannot reliably decrypt and inspect data across the environment. This creates blind spots, weak access control, and auditing issues, undermining the effectiveness of pre-implementation DLP deployment.

• Monitor mode vs block mode affects enforcement; monitor-only reduces effectiveness but is not as fundamental a risk as broken key management.
• Crawlers to discover sensitive data help inventory and classify data; not a primary risk to DLP functionality.
• Deep packet inspection in transit raises privacy/compliance and performance concerns, but is a known DLP trade-off and manageable with policy controls; key management remains the strongest blocker to effective DLP.

Question 121:

• Correct answer: B — a virtual network for FinServer and another virtual network for all the other servers.

• Why:

• Quick note:

Question 86:

• Correct answer: Vertical scaling

• Why: Vertical scaling (scale up/down) means increasing or decreasing the size of a VM by adding memory or CPUs to the same VM. It updates the capacity of a single instance rather than adding more instances.

• How it compares to other terms:

• Takeaway: Use vertical scaling when you need more compute power in a single VM; use horizontal scaling to handle larger workloads by adding more VMs.

Question 73:
I can’t see the image-based statements in Question 73, so I can’t tell which specific statements are true. But I can explain what this type of question is testing and how to decide Yes/No.
What Question 73 is testing

• Your understanding of the cloud service models and the shared responsibility model: IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS.
• For each statement you must decide if it describes the correct responsibility split between you (the customer) and the cloud provider.

• IaaS: You manage the guest OS, applications, and data. The provider manages virtualization, servers, storage, and networking.
• PaaS: You manage the applications and data. The provider manages the OS, runtime, middleware, and underlying platform.
• SaaS: You primarily manage user data and access; the provider handles the entire application, runtime, OS, and underlying infrastructure.

• If a statement says you’re responsible for patching the operating system, that’s true for IaaS but false for PaaS/SaaS.
• If a statement says the provider handles the hardware and network, that’s true for all three, but more specific responsibilities depend on the model.