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Question 513:

• Correct answer: B — Mirrored sites

• Redundant arrays: protects against disk failures but not site-wide outages or rapid failover between sites.
• Nightly backups: results in high RPO (up to 24 hours) and longer RTO.
• Remote backups: protects against site loss but may involve network latency and not real-time failover; still higher RPO/RTO than true mirroring.

Question 467:

• The correct answer is C: It acts as a measuring tool and progress indicator.

• A maturity model provides defined levels to quantify current capability, baseline gaps, and track improvements over time.
• This measurement and progressReporting support management decisions and visibility into how the organization is advancing.

• A: Identifying weaknesses is part of the assessment, but the primary value is the measurement framework, not just fixing gaps.
• B: Facilitating an improvement plan can result from the assessment, but it’s a consequence, not the core benefit.
• D: Ensuring organizational consistency and improvement is a broader outcome; the core, defining benefit is the measurement of maturity and progress.

Question 466:

• The correct answer is C: System downtime reports.

• SLAs specify required availability. Downtime reports provide actual outages, durations, and times, which let you verify if uptime targets were met and identify any breaches.
• These reports enable calculation of SLA metrics (e.g., uptime percentage, MTTR) and help correlate outages with maintenance windows or incidents.

• System utilization reports show usage patterns, not whether service levels were met.
• Capacity planning tools help foresee demand but don’t confirm actual SLA performance.
• IS strategic plan is high-level and not evidence of current SLA compliance.

Question 452:
Question 452 asks which firewall type provides the GREATEST degree of control against hacker intrusion.

• Packet filtering router: operates at the network layer; filters by IP/port/protocol. Fast but offers limited inspection and control.
• Circuit gateway: acts as a proxy at the session layer; controls connections but not detailed content.
• Application level gateway: proxies at the application layer; can inspect payload, enforce application-specific policies, authenticate users, and provide detailed logging.
• Screening router: generic filtering with less granular control.

Question 441:
Correct answer: C – Continuity of service

• VoIP is real-time and relies on network availability. If the network or power fails, voice communication stops, making continuity of service the highest priority risk from an IS auditor’s perspective.
• Other options: Nonrepudiation is less critical for VoIP; it’s hard to enforce for voice calls. Identity management is important but not the single most important issue. Homogeneity of the network is not essential for VoIP functioning.
• Auditor focus: ensure redundancy, failover capabilities, robust disaster recovery/plans for VoIP, QoS, and emergency call handling to maintain service during outages.

Question 439:
Question 439: Which of the following would be a result of utilizing a top-down maturity model process?

• Correct answer: D: A means of benchmarking the effectiveness of similar processes with peers.

• A top-down maturity model starts at the enterprise level, setting target maturity levels and then assessing processes against external benchmarks.
• This approach emphasizes comparing your processes to peers or industry standards (benchmarking), rather than just internal comparisons.
• By contrast, bottom-up approaches focus on identifying improvement opportunities within individual processes or finding gaps across processes internally.

Question 421:
Correct answer: D. The organization does not monitor upgrades to its software.
Explanation:

• Licensing compliance hinges on ongoing entitlement and usage tracking, including upgrades. If upgrades aren’t monitored, the organization may deploy newer versions or features without updating licenses, potentially violating terms or exceeding approved licenses.
• Option B describes a monthly license verification, which is a positive control and reduces risk. Option A (centralized server) can ease management, not heighten risk. Option C (desktop software expensed, not capitalized) relates more to asset capitalization than license compliance.
• Therefore, failing to monitor upgrades poses the greatest compliance risk during an audit.

Question 418:

• Correct answer: D. Code review

• Why: Verifying application program controls means checking that the software itself enforces the designed controls (e.g., input validation, authorization, processing integrity). A code review directly examines the program logic and control implementation to confirm these controls exist and are correctly applied.

• Why the others are less appropriate:

• Note: Code reviews are often complemented by testing and documentation, but for verifying program controls, code review is the most appropriate technique.

Question 401:
Answer: A. The integrity of data processed by end user tools.
Why this is correct:

• EUC tools (like spreadsheets) often bypass centralized change controls. If the data they produce is unreliable, any conclusions or reports from those tools can be false, regardless of other controls.
• When planning an EUC assessment, the auditor focuses on data quality, accuracy, completeness, and traceability of inputs/outputs from end-user tools.

• Inclusion of end user tools in the IT balanced scorecard: useful for governance visibility but doesn’t address the fundamental risk to data reliability.
• Identification of IT owners for each end user tool: governance and accountability are important, but without data integrity, ownership alone offers limited assurance.
• Training program curriculum for key end users: important for capability, but data integrity issues exist regardless of training.

• Inventory critical EUC tools and data flows.
• Assess data sources, input validation, formulas, and reconciliation with trusted data.
• Review version control, change management, and access controls for EUC tools.

Question 392:

• Correct answer: D – Examine project change request logs

• Why: A post-implementation review (PIR) assesses ongoing governance and how changes are managed after go-live. Examining change request logs verifies that changes to the application are properly documented, authorized, tracked, and aligned with policy. It also helps assess the effectiveness of change control, including back-outs and impact analysis.

• Why the other options are less appropriate for PIR:

• Audit tips: sample change entries, verify approvals, check for adherence to the change management process, review emergency changes, and ensure there’s evidence of testing and rollback plans.